<t>The Wiener process Wt is characterized by three facts:W0 = 0 Wt is almost surely continuous Wt has independent increments with distribution Wt - Ws ~ N ( 0, t-s) (for 0 ≤ s < t). is there a proof available, why variance of weiner process is (t-s) ? can some explain in both math and non math way ?...