December 9th, 2014, 4:23 am
THe marginal distributions won't determine the copula. The copula will depend on (1) how you align the two series and (2) the cyclical pattern of volatilities.Let r(n) denote the 2-day return starting on day n. Then for issue (1) you could pair r(2n) with either r(2n-1) or r(2n+1). If volatility is not stationary, and especially if it is cyclic, these two different alignments will give different copulas.To see this, imagine that the factor has high volatility on even days and low vol on odd days. If r(2n) is paired with r(2n-1) the high vol days will match between the two marginal distributions, so there will be high correlation between the two series. But if r(2n) is paired with r(2n+1) the high vol day in one element of a pair will be different from the high vol day in the other element. So there will be a low correlation between the series.It is conceivable that the marginal distributions will impose some constraints on the copula, within this particular framework, but they won't fully determine it. EDIT: If we assume the daily returns are IID, the copula for overlapping returns [$]X,Y[$] will be fully determined, and can be written as [$]C(u_x,u_y)=\int_{s=-\infty}^\infty p_{m-h}(s)\cdot F_h\big(F^{-1}_m(u_x)-s\big) \cdot F_h\big(F^{-1}_m(u_y)-s\big)ds[$]where [$]F_n[$] is the cdf and [$]p_n[$] the pdf of the return on a sequence of [$]n[$] consecutive days, and the return periods are [$]m[$] days long, sampled at rests of [$]h[$] days (we assume [$]h\vert m[$]). Note that [$]m-h[$] is the length of the overlapping pieces and [$]h[$] is the length of the non-overlapping piece at either end of the overlapping piece.The integration variable [$]s[$] is the return on the overlapping piece. If we write [$]u_x\equiv F_m(x),u_y\equiv F_m(y)[$] then Prob[$](X<x\wedge Y<y)=C(u_x,u_y)[$].
Last edited by
andrewk on December 8th, 2014, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.