May 12th, 2004, 10:26 pm
Sorry, if this has been posted, but I couldn't find a similar topic in any of the archives.Extremely basic question about sign convention in portfolios.When you sell something it seems to get a negative sign.When you buy something it gets a positive sign. I don't understand this sign convention. For example I am trying to prove by arbitrage that the value of a European call option, c, is bounded from above by S, the stock price. We assume that the exercise price is K and that at expiry time the stock price is St.My argument then goes as follows. Assume c > S. And construct a portfolio where you write a call and buy a share:At time = 0 you sell c and buy S so the porfolio is S-c<0.If St < K at expiry your call is worthless and you have St > 0If St < K the option expires in the money and it is exercised so you have -St + K from the call and St from the stock which leaves you K.I understand the basic arithmetic of the portfolios since it is 3'd grade math. What I really don't get is why is the initial portfolio value negative. It seems to me that if you sell the call and buy the stock you would have money c-S and your portfolio would be greater than zero.This is something very stupid, I know. And I am missing something so fundamental that it is obvious. What the heck is it?Thanks!
Last edited by
RiazA on May 12th, 2004, 10:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.