July 17th, 2005, 8:20 pm
could you shed more lights on this "And for the American/European debate... As far as I know, apart from extremely steep or flat money market curve conditions, the difference in pricing eurodollar options as american or european is negligible" ? basically, I think that as eurodollar future has no dividend yiled, so the optimal exercising time of its option is expired time of the option? Am I correct?QuoteOriginally posted by: StochastixBS implied vols are lognormal vols. In a sketchy way, a 30% IV on a 2% Eurodollar futures means that on a daily horizon, the standard deviation will be (30% x 2%)/Sqrt(number of business days in a year, usually around 250), which is 3.75 bps/day. This is referred to as normalized vol. You can look at historicals of recent years and observe that when Fed target was at 2%, implied vols levels were close to half of the implied vols when we got down to 1%. This means that normalized vols were more or less constant. This then hints that the underlying dynamic when rates become very low is more normal than log-normal (but then you have to deal with non-negative probabilities of negative rates, which could exist (nnote that JPY interbank market often trades negative due to regulations).And for the American/European debate... As far as I know, apart from extremely steep or flat money market curve conditions, the difference in pricing eurodollar options as american or european is negligible.