June 13th, 2006, 3:22 pm
* Coming back a little to "Options on CPPI". I'd say that some structurer/sales teams label "option on cppi" a CPPI with a min exposure in the risky asset, or a simple call on the CPPI. But a call on a cppi more or less comes back to the same pay off as the CPPI if the underlying trading rules are identical. So as for more "human intervention"...Options on CPPI as such are really best of CPPI, in which a client wants a participation in the best of asian, american and european markets, with some insurance. The writer would then sell him a best of 3 (in this case), with say some intermediary coupons based on the performance of the best of these. That would really be an option on CPPI, and having seen many quants break their teeth on a semi closed form solution, I'd argue that these are not simple products and then that'd justify extra management fees. Also, the trading events are not always related to a rebalance. Take the example of the same best of 3, in a case when on of the 3 markets outperforms the others a lot. Then cross gamma would drag your position way long in the 2 worse and short in the best one. Hence even if you did not trigger any rebalance in the effective weights, you might need to trade all 3 risky assets in order to hedge properly, which can be really costly.* Secondary marketYou are right greghm, as far as this is concerned, on a "vanilla" CPPI, any secondary market trade could exactly match the performance (provided your underlying is liquid enough - else you might charge a bit on buybacks if for instance it is a HF underlying and you are left of long for 2 months before being able to hedge). While in the case of the option (the one I mentionned), at any point in time, correlation between underlyings and different weights while the underlying CPPIs algorithms are run means that paying the actual best of is hard to do as the best of payoff is only guaranteed to be hedged at a coupon date or at maturity, while during the life of the product, the ranks can swing so much that it is hard to tell. But usually in the case of best of's, the initial termsheet specifies a higher bid-ask spread to cover for that risk, which in the end comes back to a reduction of the participation in the option.