January 4th, 2006, 2:16 pm
(a) Is this question asking if the firm has exchange rate exposure? If all its cashflows are in Euro, then definitely.(b) Obvious way is to enter a swap as the fixed payee. That would be a perfect hedge, so I'm not sure why you would consider something else. If they had specific hedging interests (wanted to hedge against LIBOR above, say 7%), then they could buy a cap or some other OTC derivative. They could hedge with swaptions as well if they like. (c) Does entering into a forward or a future contract count as two different ways? (d) I don't think I understand this question.