November 3rd, 2006, 8:53 am
Dear all,apologies in advance for the eventual naiveness of the question. I was taking a look at Itraxx 3 Yrs levels these days. It seems that there is a certain market consensus in setting the level of the credit index swap at around 12 bps. Within such an average value, pricing the equity tranche of the corresponding 3 Yrs CDO would result in a premium which is below the threshold of 500 bps running and therefore with a negative upfront payment. (i.e. the protection seller would have to cover an upfront amount in order to receive 500 bps running during the life of the trade). The thing that is actually puzzling me is that if you look at the "global correlation daily" report issued by JPM, the reference level is still settled at 18 bps (which is suprisingly the same level of the CDX IG, for which one would expect wider values) with a bid/offer on the equity tranche of the 3 Yrs at 2.8%/4.3% (+500 bps running). The same information can be retrieved on the bloomberg (JPTX page, I suppose, but I'm not sure, not being a Bloomberg expert). How would you explain such an inconsistency, if any?TIA