December 6th, 2006, 5:33 pm
2 is more expensive.Let's consider case, when both processes goes above K_2 at some t<T. Process 2 has higher probability to return back to the interval [K_1,K_2], volatility is more than sigma_0.At any place in the interval [K_1,K_2] the process 2 has less probability than process 1 to go out of [K_1,K_2] interval, volatility is less than sigma_0.So, probability that process 2 ends up in the interval [K_1,K-2] is higher.