April 21st, 2007, 10:28 am
Hi everyone,I am calculating the variance swaps prices with the skews for different stocks. The procedure that I am following is Derman, the inputs are the skews of the different stocks. The problem that I have is how to calculate the variance swap price with only one value of the skew, that is, at the money implied volatility. Can someone explain me an accurated procedure to calculate the price in this scenario??Thanks in advance,