July 20th, 2007, 7:17 pm
In practice, linkers are modeled using your regular interest rate dv01 types of measures (calculation of the exact dv01 for a linker, however, is an interesting subject and is much discussed in academia, as far as I know). So, if you're short 100k/bp of 10y TIPS against 10y Trsy, your risk is 100k/bp of 10y breakeven inflation. I don't think it's worth reducing it down any further. If you have 100k/bp of 10y TIPS against 100k/bp of 10y CPI swap, your risk is 100k/bp of 10y TIPS asw. Finally, if you have $100k/bp of 10y TIPS against $100k/bp of 10y vanilla IRS, you have both breakeven inflation risk and asw risk.If you're subsequently trying to model this risk (all those pesky VARs, etc.) you will have to get the time series for the individual components and just do it...Papero, what you're referring to here is the inflation risk proper... There's no CPI fixing risk, at least not the way you describe it.