July 25th, 2007, 12:40 pm
Hi,I am trying to test the price process of commodities for a trending behaviour. Using a variance ratio test, can I interpret that a significantly higher than one variance ratio indicates a trend?[b/]I have read in A non random walk down Wall Street (1999) by Lo that under heteroskedasctic increments the measure of the variance ratio would be <sum(for j=1_to_q-1) of [2(q-j)/q]*autocorrelation(j)> where q is the aggregation period.If I assume that the increments of my commodity price series are heteroskedastic:Would it make sense to calculate the variance ratio over a total sample size of one year by using aggregated period of 3 months and comparing them to weekly variances?[b/]If I find out that my variance ratio is significantly higher than 1, should I keep on calculating variance ratios by rolling over my yearly samples? (i.e: sample 1: t=o->t=252, sample 2: t=1->t=253,...)Also, what software do you recommend for variance ratios?Thanks for the insights