April 21st, 2008, 8:31 am
Hi,I am evaluating a client's model for pricing outperformance options. I noticed that he is using historical volatilities and correlations in his calculation. When I asked him why he wasn't using implied volatilities, he said that as he was using historical correlations it made sense to use historical volatilities as well, as it would lead to inconsistency to use implied vols with historical correlations. What do people think about this, is this correct what is the convention for instruments like this?Thanks,John