July 17th, 2008, 12:12 pm
Hello, I have 2 questions regarding the numerical inversion of Laplace transforms. Apologies if I seem somewhat pedantic ...(1) The inversion formula (Bromwich integral) requires all singularities of the transform to lie to the left of the imaginary axis over which the integration is performed. However in pretty mcuh every paper I have read, no author ever bothers to check where these singularities are when they do the numerical inversion.Why is this? (Admittedly, I imagine it might be difficult to identify where the singularities are but shouldn't people at least flag this issue in their papers?) Moreover, I imagine this might be an issue if you're using laplace-based prices to calibrate a model as some extreme parameter values (which could appear in the optimization process) could create / shift singularities to the right of the axis over which you are integrating when doing the numerical inversion.(2) Numerical inversion of the Laplace transform, f(s) say, requires the transform for complex s. However some authors just compute the transform for real s. Are they implicitly invoking an analytic continuation argument here to obtain the transform for complex s? If so, why don't they state this? And don't some conditions need to be checked before invoking analytic continuation ?