September 1st, 2008, 5:21 pm
I have a 25-year American put option on a portfolio that is composed of a few equities and money market. I model interest rates by CIR. I am thinking about modeling equities by lognormal model; but instead of using deterministic risk free rates, I will use the stochastic short rates from CIR. ie. St-St-1=(Rt-sigma^2)*St-1+St-1*sigma*(1-rho^2)^.5*Zt, where Rt is the output from CIR model and rho is the correlation. Is my method practically doable? Will it cause any problems such as increasing the number of scenarios for a reasonable result?