November 8th, 2008, 2:08 am
1) two loaded dices: with 1, 2, ..., 6 coming up with various probability (could be different).is it possible that when we roll them both, the sum 2, 3,..., 12 comes up with the same probability?i.e., P(sum=S)=const., , S = 2, 3, ..., 12?If two loaded dices are the sameFor symmetry, we know P1=P6, P2=P5, P3=P4 P1+P2+P3 should be equal to 0.5P(sum=2)=P1^2=1/11 => P1=sqrt(1/11)P(sum=3)=2*P1*P2=1/11 => P2=1/2*sqrt(1/11)P(sum=4)=2*P1*P3+P2*P2=1/11 => P3=3/8*sqrt(1/11)P1+P2+P3=15/8*sqrt(1/11) is not equal to 0.5 : ContradictionIf two loaded dices are not the same, We have 12 variables for probability. Then there have 11+2(for totalprobability to equal to 1) equations.I would not try but the answer might be still impossible. (2) two fair dices: each face has a positive integer (could be same) on it.someone rolls these two dices and tells you that the sum follows the exact distribution as two normal fair dices, i.e., P(sum=S)=(6-|S-7|)/36, S = 2, 3, ..., 12.are these two dices just two normal fair dicesTo have S=2, 12 , We know 1 and 6 must present in two dicesWe can have 1-11 integer on each integer, but because sum(P(sum=S)| S=2,3,....,12)=1,we have to accept we only have 1-6 on the faces.1) If the two dices are the sameGenerally, we have only 6 equations for the distribution of each integer,appearantly, the answer is yes.2) If the two dices are not the sameGenerally, we have 12 variable for the distribution of each integerBut remember we still have 11+2(for totalprobability to equal to zero) equations. However,by the simple arguement, we only have 8 variables,and there have 9+2 equations. Apparently,the answer is still yes. The fair dicesare the only chance.See:For P(sum=2)=P1_1*P1_2= 1/36 -> only have 1 integer 1 on each as both P1_1 and P1_2>=1/6For P(sum=12)=P6_1*P6_2= 1/36 -> only have 1 integer 6 on each as both P6_1 and P6_2>=1/6
Last edited by
letiand on November 7th, 2008, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.