Serving the Quantitative Finance Community

 
User avatar
quantyst
Topic Author
Posts: 0
Joined: June 4th, 2008, 5:08 am

On a Lighter Note...

December 17th, 2008, 4:11 am

Some verbs seem to never be used in certain tenses in English. For example, we say "I know that" or "She knew this" or "They have known it", but never do we hear anything like "I am knowing it". Why is it that "I am knowing it" does not seem sensible? Is the verb "know" unique to English in this regard? Are there other languages in which the equivalent of "know" does not accept the present participle tense? Does anyone know of other verbs in English that do not seem to accept certain tenses?
Last edited by quantyst on December 17th, 2008, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
User avatar
ehremo
Posts: 0
Joined: April 22nd, 2005, 9:49 am

On a Lighter Note...

December 17th, 2008, 12:43 pm

http://www.englishpage.com/verbpage/types.htmlI guess continuous tenses usually describe the main action the subject is performing. It's hard to imagine that the main thing somone is doing in any given moment is knowing something.Maybe similar to Spanish ser/estar?
 
User avatar
NicolasQuant
Posts: 0
Joined: August 28th, 2008, 3:59 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 17th, 2008, 5:55 pm

In French there is no present continous yet it exists in Latin and Spanish.Thus for a Frenchman it is difficult to understand the difference between "I become" and "I am becoming" but perhaps the latter is incorrect.If someone could shed some light on this point i'd be grateful
 
User avatar
phuebu
Posts: 2
Joined: January 7th, 2008, 10:40 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 17th, 2008, 8:23 pm

The only examples I can think of containing "I become" also have a conditional statement, e.g. "I become heaver if I eat too much". If you were eating alot then you could validly say "I am becoming heaver" I guess. I don't think 'to become' is the best example. With something more standard like 'to play' the difference is obvious. "I play football" means you play football at least occasionally but are not necessarily playing it right as you make the statement. If you say "I am playing football" they you are actually playing as you make the statement.
 
User avatar
phuebu
Posts: 2
Joined: January 7th, 2008, 10:40 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 17th, 2008, 8:25 pm

On an additional note the germans have two words for "to know"Weissen = to know (knowledge)Kennen = to know (someone)
 
User avatar
NicolasQuant
Posts: 0
Joined: August 28th, 2008, 3:59 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 18th, 2008, 8:39 am

For a verb related to an action of course we the French understand the difference. I chose "become" as a specific example because it was less clear. Nevertheless, thank you fo your "I become heavier" example, it's good.The same distinction exists in France between knowing something abstract or concrete (connaître/savoir)What do you think of this example.A student says: "I am knowing my lesson today", expressing the fact he knows the lesson of the day, which may not be the case the day after and that he does not usually know his lessons. Does that make sense? QuoteOriginally posted by: phuebuThe only examples I can think of containing "I become" also have a conditional statement, e.g. "I become heavier if I eat too much". If you were eating alot then you could validly say "I am becoming heavier" I guess. I don't think 'to become' is the best example. With something more standard like 'to play' the difference is obvious. "I play football" means you play football at least occasionally but are not necessarily playing it right as you make the statement. If you say "I am playing football" they you are actually playing as you make the statement.
 
User avatar
phuebu
Posts: 2
Joined: January 7th, 2008, 10:40 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 18th, 2008, 5:53 pm

QuoteOriginally posted by: NicolasQuantFor a verb related to an action of course we the French understand the difference. I chose "become" as a specific example because it was less clear. Nevertheless, thank you fo your "I become heavier" example, it's good.The same distinction exists in France between knowing something abstract or concrete (connaître/savoir)What do you think of this example.A student says: "I am knowing my lesson today", expressing the fact he knows the lesson of the day, which may not be the case the day after and that he does not usually know his lessons. Does that make sense? QuoteOriginally posted by: phuebuThe only examples I can think of containing "I become" also have a conditional statement, e.g. "I become heavier if I eat too much". If you were eating alot then you could validly say "I am becoming heavier" I guess. I don't think 'to become' is the best example. With something more standard like 'to play' the difference is obvious. "I play football" means you play football at least occasionally but are not necessarily playing it right as you make the statement. If you say "I am playing football" they you are actually playing as you make the statement.Hmm, interesting question. It doesnt sound right, possibily because the "today" is not relative but an absolute thing, so tomorrow it will simply become "I knew my lesson yesterday".
 
User avatar
rmexico
Posts: 0
Joined: May 1st, 2008, 4:50 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 19th, 2008, 1:24 pm

How about the word "love", in the literal sense. People say stuff like "I'm loving it", but I think that's just an expression. If I said something like "I'm loving my wife", people would think I'd be talking about sex. Edit: I just realized that if I said something like "I'm knowing my wife", people would also think I'd be talking about sex lol.
Last edited by rmexico on December 18th, 2008, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
User avatar
dirtydroog
Posts: 0
Joined: July 12th, 2007, 6:32 pm

On a Lighter Note...

December 21st, 2008, 8:14 pm

QuoteOriginally posted by: quantystSome verbs seem to never be used in certain tenses in English. For example, we say "I know that" or "She knew this" or "They have known it", but never do we hear anything like "I am knowing it". Why is it that "I am knowing it" does not seem sensible? Is the verb "know" unique to English in this regard? Are there other languages in which the equivalent of "know" does not accept the present participle tense? Does anyone know of other verbs in English that do not seem to accept certain tenses?You've not worked with many Indians then. But then, they also make up words such as, updation and adaption.
 
User avatar
Zub
Posts: 0
Joined: December 13th, 2005, 1:04 pm

On a Lighter Note...

January 5th, 2009, 1:51 pm

QuoteOriginally posted by: NicolasQuantIn French there is no present continous yet it exists in Latin and Spanish.Thus for a Frenchman it is difficult to understand the difference between "I become" and "I am becoming" but perhaps the latter is incorrect.If someone could shed some light on this point i'd be gratefulI think that the second option is translated from English to French using the expression "etre en train de". So I would translate the two cases with"Je deviens" and "je suis en train de devenir"