February 4th, 2009, 6:07 pm
In page 623 of Hull 6th edition, it is stated that dealers usually quote ATM cap with flat vol where cap rates are equal to the swap rate of the same payment dates.Suppose we want to calculate cap price with 1 year expiry and 3 month tenor. For caplets of each tenor we use 1 year swap rate as strike and 1 year flat vol quote. However, I am confused on what to use for time 0 starting value for each caplet. According to other examples in the book, caplet formula requires today's 3 month Libor rates for the maturities of 6, 9 and 12 month for starting values. Then, it is not ATM because the starting values in the formula are not equal to the strike.What is the market convention? Is there a separate market convention for spot vols, too? Any literature that fully explains this quoting convention?