May 26th, 2009, 8:35 pm
Hi,Can someone help me understand this please?If I have an amortising 3 year Swap starting in 1 years time with the following principal 30, 20, 10.If I am the Fixed rate receiver what is a hedge using standard swaps that start today and have maturities from 1 to 4 years?To hedge the IR risk, I need to "Receive Float, Pay Fixed", but what about the maturities. If I hedge today using a 4 year swap with an amortising principal that matches the original swap, the first year payments will not have an offsetting payment with my original swap as it starts in 1 years time...Does anyone have any ideas? What am I missing here?Thanks