June 16th, 2009, 10:24 pm
hello again everyone.In a binomial model, we have the following price dynamicsAlso, let the interest rate be so the the risk-neutral probabilities are It is not difficult to see that the time-zero value of an American put with strike at $5 is $1.36. Exercise 4.2 in Shreve's book describes the following situation: "Consider an agent who borrows $1.36 at time zero and buys the put. Explain how this agent can generate sufficient funds to pay off his loan (which grows by 25% each period) by trading in the stock and money markets and optimally exercising the put" Faced with this exercise, I first asked myself: "Why on earth would someone do that?". My first thought was that this guy wants to, at least, hedge his position on the bank account and, if the prices happens to move in a certain favorable way, to have some profit. But then I realized that this should not be possible since this is would build an arbitrage opportunity which is excludedusing Shreve's parameters. So I would like to know if someone have a better idea about the meaning of this exercise. Anyway, I tried to sketch something and given that the agent must optimally exercise the put (in this case this means that he should exercise the put when the price of the option is the same of it's intrinsic value). So if a Tail came up he should exercise and with this money ($3) pay his loan. But if a Head comes up, then I could not figure out what to do.I would appreciate any hint or tip. I think that might be relevant to point out that this is not kind of homework. I working on all exercises alone.