August 8th, 2009, 8:21 am
For example, I long an European option and want to hedge it from the beginning. I use the black scholes model to hedge and buy delta underlying, using the implied volatility at t=0. At t=1, I need to rebalance my portfolio and need to update my delta. Which implied volatility I should use, the implied volatility at t=0, or t=1?