August 24th, 2010, 10:58 am
Thanks Bucklersbury,I understand the formula however the term C1 is a point of confusion, because it says that C1 "may be the first frational payment" or "may be" zero. However I argue that if P = Dirty price (includes accrued interest) then this C1 term should also include accrued interest. Therefore C1 should be the whole first coupon (not a fractional of the first coupon)Any thoughts?Paul
Last edited by
CRMsquared on August 23rd, 2010, 10:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.