June 18th, 2011, 12:36 am
My gut feeling is that the forward rate of the variable notional forward is adjusted as usual as quanto forward is, i.e., correlation * vol(a) * vol(b), but can anybody please confirm it?By variable notional FX forward, I mean:Payoff in currency CCC = AAA-BBB(T) / AAA-BBB(0) * ( BBB-CCC(T) - K* )where AAA-BBB is BBB per AAA and K* is the forward rate, while the plain vanilla forward is:Payoff in currency CCC = 1 * (BBB-CCC(T) - K), K = BBB-CCC(0) * exp((r-q)t), r is the risk-free rate of CCC and q is the risk-free rate of BBB.Thanks,
Last edited by
violaski on June 17th, 2011, 10:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.