November 5th, 2012, 8:16 am
Hi, if I run a draw each week where there are 10 prizes. There are 100 tickets in existence. The probability of winning a prize is therefore for 10/100. If I had 2 tickets the probability of winning in a week would be 2*10/100. If I look at this probability over a year (52 draws) or 2 years ( 104 draws)?.i start getting confused. The probability of this becomes greater than 1 using my logic. Any ideas on correct probabilities? I think i need to look at the binomial distribution.? Thanks in advance.
Last edited by
bonosmate on November 4th, 2012, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.