QuoteOriginally posted by: UltravioletQuoteOriginally posted by: zerdnaQuoteOriginally posted by: UltravioletDoes this limit even exist for x > 1?That was a rhetorical question

The limit of x^x^x^... is 1 for |x| <= 1 and does not exist for x > 1. Thus there is no paradox because the original problem is ill posed.And the proof is...?in the pudding? :-)x^x^x^... = exp(x^n * ln x)lim(n->inf) exp(x^n * ln x) = a and lim(n->inf) (x^n * ln x) = ln a. Since x^n diverges for x > 1, ln a is +infinite and hence so is a.I am not sure what you mean. Normally, what's called x^n is x*x*x...(n times). x^n is certainly diverging, but that's a completely different function than x^x^x...(n times), isn't it?why is x^x^x^... = exp(x^n * ln x) or even lim(n->inf) exp(x^n * ln x)?I agree that x^x^x^... = exp(ln(x) * x^x^x ... ) or lim(n->inf) exp(ln(x) * x^x^x...^x (n times)) , but that's a different story