What is the intention of a 200% risk weight? Is it anticipating increased exposure to that credit rating in lead up to default (trying to borrow out of debt)? Can't find much derivation.explanation of this anywhere. Any response very appreciated.
Sorry, I see that I've been a moron. Forgot about the capital ratio. Couldn't understand why you'd keep capital to 200% of the exposure. Thank you for not treating my question with the much harsher response it deserved.