May 4th, 2013, 8:51 am
In a recent lecture on derivatives pricing, we used Laplace transform for determining the value function of a forward contract.Our lecturer said the initial condition was [$]V(S,T-t=0)=S[$]. To be honest, I don't understand why that would be. After all, forward contracts are not marked to market like futures, so shouldn't the condition be [$]V(S,0)=S-K[$]?I looked it up in PW's books and his formulation is in disagreement with my lecturer's, too.Thanks in advance for helping a student out!