June 25th, 2013, 7:03 am
QuoteOriginally posted by: DavidJNIt has to do with collateralization. If the two swap counterparties have signed 2-way CSA (credit support annex) support along with their master ISDA agreements, there will be collateral movements between the parties based on the market value of the swap. Say we're dealing with a vanilla fixed for floating IRS where counterparty party A pays fixed and receives floating. If rates increase after origination then the swap will have a positive mark for A (and hence an equal magnitude negative mark to counterparty B). With a 2-way CSA agreement counterparty B will then have to send collateral to party A (the exact amount of the collateral movement will depend on the mark of the swap and the specific terms of the CSA - threshold, minimum transfer amount, etc.) and party B will have to fund the collateral somehow.OK. I understand. Thanks very much for your reply.In the case of non collateralized instruments do you know how the funding costs arise?Thank you