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yktsui
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 13th, 2015, 4:31 pm

Hi I have some question in below payoff function derived from Taylor expansion to be used for pricing Variance Swap:[$]f(S_T) = f(S_*) + f'(S_*)(S_T-S_*) + \int_{0}^{S_*} f''(K)(K-S_T)^{+}dK + \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f''(K)(S_T-K)^{+}dK[$]In the proof:[$]f(S_T) [$][$]= \int_{0}^{S_*} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK + \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= f(K)1_{S_T<K}\Big|_{0}^{S_*} - \int_{0}^{S_*} f'(K)1_{S_T<K}dK + f(K)1_{S_T\geq K}\Big|_{S_*}^{\infty} - \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f'(K)1_{S_T \geq K}dK [$][$] = ...[$]for [$]f(K)1_{S_T\geq K}\Big|_{S_*}^{\infty}[$], I just don't understand why its equal to [$] +f(S_*)1_{S_T \geq S_*}[$] instead of [$] -f(S_*)1_{S_T \geq S_*}[$]Any one have idea on that? Thanks, Remarks: [$]\Delta(S_T-K)[$] is the Dirac function
Last edited by yktsui on December 12th, 2015, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
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Alan
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 13th, 2015, 6:10 pm

agree -- in the line above the line with the ..., the signs (+,-,+,-) should be (+,-,-,+)
 
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yktsui
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 14th, 2015, 2:15 pm

But it was just simply integration by parts. Why its (+,-,-,+)?
 
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Alan
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 14th, 2015, 7:11 pm

Because different choices are being made for v in the \int u dv parts formula
 
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LindersD
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 17th, 2015, 7:09 pm

Another proof of the same result can be found in http://feb.kuleuven.be/drc/AFI/research ... i-1377.pdf I hope it helps you. kind regards,Daniel
 
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list1
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 20th, 2015, 11:35 am

When I first looked at the formula I checked it for the call option payoff [$]f ( S_T )\,\, =\,\, max\,\{ S_T \,\,-\,\,K\, ,\,\,0\,\}[$]. The integration is quite simple and also it is quite an appropriate illustrative example.
Last edited by list1 on December 19th, 2015, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
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Alan
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 20th, 2015, 4:22 pm

Yes, another good one is [$]f(S_T) = \log \frac{S_T}{F_{0,T}}[$], where [$]F_{0,T}[$] is the forward price of the stock for sale at time T.When the stock is the SPX, the formula is the basis for the VIX (eqn (1)) whichis, in turn, an approximate fair strike (in vol pts) for the variance swap of the thread title.
Last edited by Alan on December 19th, 2015, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
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yktsui
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 27th, 2015, 2:01 pm

Sorry my bad my calculus background is no good, would you mind to tell me why below is incorrect by negative sign? I have never tried integration by part with indicator function. Thanks, [$]\int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)d(1_{S_T \geq K})[$]
 
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yktsui
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 27th, 2015, 2:12 pm

But I saw his proof for the Lemma seems skipped some step which I don't understood...He said: [$]u(x)[$][$]= u(a) + xu'(x) - au'(a) + \int_{x}^{a}Ku''(K)dK[$]By Considering the cases x < a and x > a[$]= u(a) + u'(a)(x-a) + \int_{inf I}^{a}u''(K)(K-x)_{+}dK + \int_{a}^{sup I}u''(K)(x-K)_{+}dK[$]I don't know how he did with the term [$]xu'(x)[$] as it disappeared in the next line...
 
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Alan
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

December 27th, 2015, 2:49 pm

QuoteOriginally posted by: yktsuiSorry my bad my calculus background is no good, would you mind to tell me why below is incorrect by negative sign? I have never tried integration by part with indicator function. Thanks, [$]\int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)d(1_{S_T \geq K})[$]Fix a value for [$]S_T[$], say 2. Now plot [$]1_{S_T \geq K}[$] vs. [$]K[$]. See?
Last edited by Alan on December 26th, 2015, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.
 
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LindersD
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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap

January 4th, 2016, 11:05 am

QuoteOriginally posted by: yktsuiBut I saw his proof for the Lemma seems skipped some step which I don't understood...He said: [$]u(x)[$][$]= u(a) + xu'(x) - au'(a) + \int_{x}^{a}Ku''(K)dK[$]By Considering the cases x < a and x > a[$]= u(a) + u'(a)(x-a) + \int_{inf I}^{a}u''(K)(K-x)_{+}dK + \int_{a}^{sup I}u''(K)(x-K)_{+}dK[$]I don't know how he did with the term [$]xu'(x)[$] as it disappeared in the next line...Proof: Assume now that [$]x<a.[$] Then we have that [$]\left( x-K\right) _{+}=0[$] if [$]K>a[$]and therefore [$]\int_{a}^{\sup I}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left(x-K\right) _{+}[$]d[$]K=0[$] Furthermore, we have that[$]\begin{eqnarray*}\int_{\inf I}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)_{+}\text{d}K & =&\int_{\inf I}^{x}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right)\underset{=0}{\underbrace{\left( K-x\right) _{+}}}\text{d}K+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right) _{+}\text{d}K\\ & =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)\text{d}K\\& =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-x\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \text{d}K\\& =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x).\end{eqnarray*}[$]We can then write[$]\begin{eqnarray*}& u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) \left( x-a\right)+\int_{\inf I}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)_{+}\text{d}K+\int_{a}^{\sup I}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left(x-K\right) _{+}\text{d}K\\& =u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) \left( x-a\right)+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x).\\& =u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) x-u^{\prime}\left(a\right) a+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x)\\& =u\left( a\right) +xu^{\prime}(x)-u^{\prime}\left( a\right) a+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K\\& =u(x).\end{eqnarray*}[$]A similar procedure works for [$]x\geq a[$]