April 1st, 2016, 5:22 pm
Hello,I'm trying to solve the pricing problem for an European call option using the Variance Gamma model for the underlying log-prices. In the paper of Madan-Carr-Chang 1998 "The Variance Gamma process and option pricing" there is a closed formula solution (the lasts two equations of page 99 in the Appendix).I implemented that formula with option parameters: [$] S_0 = K = 100 [$], [$]T = 1[$] and [$]r = 0.05[$]. (K is the strike) and Variance gamma parameters: [$] \theta = 0.1 [$], [$] \sigma = 0.2 [$], [$] \nu = 0.1 [$].The result I get is [$] c(S_0,t_0) = 10.4460 [$].To solve the same problem, I implemented a Monte Carlo simulation with same parameters. I have run 1000 simulations each of 1 million paths and I report the average with standard deviation. I simulate the price in equation (22) of the paper, considering the VG process as a Brownian motion subordinated to a Gamma process..The result that I got is [$] c(S_0,t_0) = 11.4462 \pm 0.0161 [$].The difference is huge! (and is quite strange that the second is exactly 1 unit more)Any suggestion? Can you send me some reference with some option price? So I can compare. Thank you