Hello there!
I was wondering whether someone could explain to me in simple words why - economically speaking - the spread sensitivity of a TRS on a corporate bond is higher than the interest rate sensitivity. Or, in other words, why is the spread sensi of the TRS different to the one of its underlying?
My observation is derived from standard TRS pricing approaches that assume to consider probability weighted cash flows.
Any input would be highly appreciated!
Best,
alinghi