Re: Interpolation of a Implied Volatility Surface
Posted: September 28th, 2020, 8:36 pm
If the objective is to minimize the difference between Fengler and the markets, wouldn't this result in the best fit being no smoothing at all?I watch many markets simultaneously so the automatic calibration on the smoothing parameter is kinda important. It's fine to have the calibrated smoothing parameter a bit off from my judgement but at least it should be close (i.e. fit everything within bid/ask)
Well, I give an objective function that I like at eqn (18) of my paper that I cited. Perhaps you could choose the smoothing parameter to minimize that and see if you like the results. Now, [$]C^{model}_i[$] would be the Fengler fits as a function of the smoothing parameter. Note C stands for the out-of-the-money puts or calls, puts on the downside strikes and calls on the upside. But, you likely need more careful cost-of-carrys to use that formula.