March 23rd, 2009, 9:59 pm
QuoteOriginally posted by: GroznyQuoteOriginally posted by: Traden4AlphaHmmm.... I think I prefer Garrison's model although I don't see how either model says much about "capital structure" as I understand it (i.e., the capital structure of an entity as strategic mixture of debt, equity, and options of various risk specifications and durations)QuoteOriginally posted by: Grozny Read the first four sections of my Critique of Austrian Economics for a complete description of the Distribution of Wealth over the Capital Structure (DWCS), which I introduced in 2004.Read my Critique, Traden4Alpha. You are not even close to touching on the important difference between my DWCS and Hayek's triangle.A few comments:First, which-axis-means-what of the Hayek et al triangle shouldn't bother an axiomatic person. But one problem I have with the Hayek's triangle (and I suspect that it applies to your DWCS) is that it is deceptively smooth -- an economist's deductive view of an economy rather than an inductive view of a real production structure. In real product supply chains, some stages have higher or lower returns due to competitive factors, supply/demand imbalances, or multi-industry substitution effects.Second, in a non-equilibrium economy, long-duration production is much riskier than short-duration production. By the time the product is completed, it might be obsolete, overstocked due to economic fluctuations, or found to contain a serious flaw (e.g., contain a substance that was declared dangerous/illegal AFTER the company commenced production). As such, one might expect a higher cost of money for enterprises that take these risks. One of the business trends of recent decades has been a move to lean manufacturing which emphasizes the minimization of stocks relative to flow. Some plants, such as those of Toyota operate with as little as 8 hours of raw materials.Third, although I would agree that valuation is with respect to the future, I also see three significant exceptions to this. First, real humans in real markets don't behave that way. For many types of goods, especially consumer goods, the historical cost of the materials is a crucial determinant of willingness to pay. Cost is taken as both a signal for value and as potential means for displaying wealth (e.g., gold jewelry, mink coats, granite countertops, etc.). With respect to axiom 1, real people often prefer the item with higher costs (within some budgetary constraint). Second, historical cost looms large in the behavior of investors in the form of loss aversion. Investors are extremely reluctant to sell at a loss (i.e., "lock-in the loss"), regardless of the future outlook of the investment. Although this behavior is considered irrational in a world of perfect information, it may be optimal behavior for a mere mortal. Third, the date-of-manufacture does matter for a wide range of goods and includes at least four prevailing patterns in v = f(t): 1) df/dt > 0 (e.g. wine, collectible coins, antiques); 2) df/dt < 0 (e.g., cars, computers, newspapers, fashion apparel); 3) f(t>tmax) = 0 (e.g., foods and pharmaceuticals with expiration dates); 4) d^2f/dt^2 < 0 (e.g, optimally aged products such a white wines, cheeses, house plants).More later if I have time.