July 21st, 2011, 10:44 am
Its really confusing?T=0.5 and 0.1 vol with 0.1 vvol should be within the comfort zone for Hagan.+ as I said 0.71 does seem low for a 6 month 0% ATM option struck at 100?But it's not obvious to me how to reconcile the two sets of answers?I'm not even certain which answer to accept as correct? The unbiased scheme works pretty well for the parameter sets shown in the osterlee paper but it also gives 0.71(ish) for the parameter set we have been testing?It seems likely that the simulation based schemes and your FD schemes are "correct" as they agree with each other, but that some assumption used to build these models are different some how to Black, Hagan and indeed Roelof's FD scheme.