Hi everyone, i really appreciate if anyone could help me with my doubts.Firstly, i am currently trying to replicate the results of Paper by John Hull & Alan White: "Valuing credit default swaps I: No Counterparty risk" (The paper is attached)I have some difficulties replicating the results obtained for Table 3 ( Calculation of Implied Probabilities)Basically, for my calculations, I used Equation (2) & (4) to find the implied default probabilities of the bond. However, the results differ from that of the authors'. So, i was wondering if the appropriate equations to use are Equation (5) & (6) ?If I were to implement calculation based on Equation (5) & (6), how I am supposed to go about with the calculations? Do I use Simpson's rule to evaluate the integral and how do I apply Simpsons' rule to equation (5)?In addition, I really appreciate if anyone can send me the file containing the correct calculations for the probabilities so I can check on my stuff...Thanks a lot.

I am looking for a copy of this "Valuing credit default swaps I: No Counterparty risk" (The paper is attached)

here it is jaihttp://www.defaultrisk.com/pp_crdrv_09.htm

The credit market has advanced a lot since this paper was published and the credit spreads are no longer extracted from the straight bond prices. If they're used at all, there's a liquidity premium. It depends on exactly what you're looking to do, but i'd just concentrate on getting default probs from credit spreads and vice versa.