January 24th, 2006, 8:16 am
New to this forum & hope someone can point me in the right direction.I think I understand various different copula structures & their uses in correlation modeling. So, in the case of credit modeling where t1, t2,... are default times for different names we have that the probability P(t1,t2,...) = C(P(t1),P(t2),...,params) where C is the copula. In the case of a Gaussian copula, we have P(t1,t2,...) = Normdist(Norminv(P(t1)), Norminv(P(t2)),...,params)I think I also understand the following argument for modeling default correlations:Define X1 = Norminv(P(t1)) which is therefore a normally distributed variable, similarly X2,etc. By inverting we have ti as a function of XiThen model Xi as a sum of normal variables Xi = Ai*V + Bi*Vi. This captures correlation between the Xi because the stochastic variable V is common to all the Xi. Then work out (various methods) P(X1, X2,...) and we can generate P(t1,t2,...)What I can't work out is the algebraic relationship between these two approaches:1) P(t1,t2,...) = Normdist(X1,X2,....,covariance matrix)2) P(t1,t2,...) = integral over V(product of P(Xi|V))Can anyone point me in the direction of a paper that carries out the algebraic transformations to get from 1 to 2? How does the covariance matrix in 1 get transformed into the appropriate values of Ai and Bi in 2?Thanks,MrH