March 3rd, 2008, 10:48 pm
Hi,I came across a curious result today which I can't get my head around. If I price an Asian option at inception (fixed strike, arithmetic avg of discrete fixings), the gamma is larger than a vanilla with same maturity & strike. Given that the vol of the average is quite a bit lower than the stock (by approx 1/sqrt(3) lets say) I expected the gamma to be substantiallyl lower. What's going on? Thanks for any insight!