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Why doesn't the American call equal the European call?

Posted: December 9th, 2008, 7:14 pm
by bjornnak
According to Hull, Am.call > Eu.call (larger than or equal to) when there are no dividends and everything else is the same.However, since it's never optimal to exercise an American call with no dividends, the options should be exactly the same.The argument is, of course, that the holder of the Am.call has the opportunity of early exercise, and therefore C > c.But the opportunity is by definition worthless, why then doesn't C = c ?If I wanted to buy a call option, and had to choose between C and c, why would I ever choose the more expensive one when what I get is the same.It may of course be the case that "larger or equal to" is just a formality, and it's always = in reality.

Why doesn't the American call equal the European call?

Posted: December 11th, 2008, 6:34 am
by villiger
with no dividends its "equal to". Instead of exercising you'd rather sell your option, where you also get the time value.It should actually read: C not less than c.