November 2nd, 2009, 12:34 pm
I think it's to do with the physical cash - the FX Fwd market was one ways banks could get hold of *physical* dollars. It doesn't matter whether the credit risk is negated or not, because these banks needed the Dollars - so supply/demand factors.Additionally, because the principals are exchanged there is significant market risk on these trades if your counterparty defaults - as an example, imagine you entered a EUR1bn 3m swap where you lend USD and borrow EUR against it, and the initial exchange of principal occured. Now imagine your counterparty goes bust: you now have a spot FX exposure of long EUR1bn (in addition to losing the interest differential on the far leg) which will cost you money to get out of in terms of bid/ask spread, but even if you have an ISDA/CSA, overnight (ie since the last collateral payment) the FX market could still have moved a percent or two causing you huge potential losses on that exposure (e.g. a 1% fall in EURUSD would cost you $10m). So there is probably some optionality priced into the basis spread given that the predominant flows were towards borrowing of USD. I've not tried tested that hypothesis, however...