September 30th, 2010, 3:41 am
Okay, I got that book. I'm trying to come up with an ARMA(1,1) forecaster to predict 1 timestep ahead.An ARMA(1,1) model for a time series e with 0 mean is[1] Y(t)=(1 + theta*L)/(1 - phi*L)*e(t)L is the lag operatorThe book gives this equation for an ARMA(1,1) 1 step ahead forcaster[2] Y(t+1)=(phi+theta)/(1+theta*L)*Y(t)However, since we know the time series e, can't we just combine the two equations to get the following [3] ?[3] Y(t+1)=(phi+theta)/(1-phi*L)*e(t)Is that right?