September 28th, 2011, 6:22 pm
Reflect, yes. Equal, no. At least in theory (ignoring a minuscule correlation effect with interest rates) the futures price should be equal to the risk neutral expectation of VIX at expiry of the futures contract. Given the large negative covariance between VIX and the broad market indices, you figure there is a lot of risk premium at work here, and so you would expect that the VIX futures price is biased high as an estimate of the future VIX value.