March 11th, 2015, 2:44 pm
For valuation can't you chop it up into monthly CSOs? at least to a 1st approximation.Out of interest, what is the price of hold a VLCC for a month, and of pumping crude into and out of one as a %age of the underlying?QuoteOriginally posted by: ncutler1990Hi All,Working on valuing a situation where we literally store Oil in a VLCC, fully capturing the embedded optionality. Physical traders often store Oil in slightly backwardated markets, where there is no Futures spread that can be locked in by selling a physically settled later dated leg (short Oil Future). So the problem is, how do you price this today given the traders ability to dynamically hedge the cargo ie lock in some spread if the curve steepens OR sell on spot if the price rises. This is like asymmetric +ve Gamma - thoughts pls?I've simplified the problem as such (evaluating at any future month with Futures price Ft, we buy the spot via going long a Future today (Fo) ie RECEIVE physical oil at spot=Fo and storing it in a vessel. S= Spot at any time in the future). In practice it is the other way around (at inception they DONT hedge, but Ive priced it starting from the point of being fully hedged at inception)PnL = (Ft - Fo) + (S - S) #this is fully hedged as the physical legs offset eachother, we want to maximise this by un-hedging partially and selling part of the cargo on the Spot mkt if S>FtMax(PnL) = {aFt + (1-a)S} -Fo + (S - S) # a is some hedge ratio = a(Ft - S) + (S - Fo)So how do we optimise a? Well, if at time t S>Ft then we want to have a=0 ie fully sold on spot market or if S<Ft stayed at our hedge asPnL(optimal) = either (Ft -Fo) if Ft>S OR (S- Fo) elseHow do we price it today? I used a = 1- N(d1), which is the Delta of being short a (on S-Fo)This gives: V = (Ft - Fo) + N(d1){ S - Ft} = PnL(optimal as before) # this makes intuative sense because N(d1) is the % probablity of this S>F, in which case (like a CALL in this case) the S comes in and the Ft's are cancelled outSimply from recognising the explicit terms, this is the structure of:V= (Ft - Fo) + (long(Binary Asset or nothing, K=Ft) + short(Binary, Future or nothing, K=Ft)Makes perfect sense in practice because this embedded optionality is binary in nature and the Future would be perfectly offset and replaced with Spot).But this isn't path dependant? Well, pricing it like an American Binary (aka a One Touch Option) we incorporate path dependence, but then why would a trader completely unhedge the second S>K=Ft?Ultimately the value is if the trader sells fully unhedged and sells it on the spot market at Smax before maturity t. The pay off of a fixed strike look-back LCfixed = max{Smax - Ft, 0} with the strike K=Ft. Lookbacks are always ITM so also intuatively represent some value in the trade in backwardated market.We want (worst case locking in the spread): max{Ft, S} - FoSO:max{Ft, S} - Fo = LCfixed - Fo = max{Smax - Ft, 0} + {Ft - Fo} = EITHER (Ft - Fo) if S<Ft= OR (Ft - Ft) + Smax - Fo if S>FtMy trader thinks this is like asymmetric +ve Gamma - thoughts pls?Cheers