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Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 13th, 2015, 4:31 pm
by yktsui
Hi I have some question in below payoff function derived from Taylor expansion to be used for pricing Variance Swap:[$]f(S_T) = f(S_*) + f'(S_*)(S_T-S_*) + \int_{0}^{S_*} f''(K)(K-S_T)^{+}dK + \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f''(K)(S_T-K)^{+}dK[$]In the proof:[$]f(S_T) [$][$]= \int_{0}^{S_*} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK + \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= f(K)1_{S_T<K}\Big|_{0}^{S_*} - \int_{0}^{S_*} f'(K)1_{S_T<K}dK + f(K)1_{S_T\geq K}\Big|_{S_*}^{\infty} - \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f'(K)1_{S_T \geq K}dK [$][$] = ...[$]for [$]f(K)1_{S_T\geq K}\Big|_{S_*}^{\infty}[$], I just don't understand why its equal to [$] +f(S_*)1_{S_T \geq S_*}[$] instead of [$] -f(S_*)1_{S_T \geq S_*}[$]Any one have idea on that? Thanks, Remarks: [$]\Delta(S_T-K)[$] is the Dirac function
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 13th, 2015, 6:10 pm
by Alan
agree -- in the line above the line with the ..., the signs (+,-,+,-) should be (+,-,-,+)
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 14th, 2015, 2:15 pm
by yktsui
But it was just simply integration by parts. Why its (+,-,-,+)?
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 14th, 2015, 7:11 pm
by Alan
Because different choices are being made for v in the \int u dv parts formula
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 17th, 2015, 7:09 pm
by LindersD
Another proof of the same result can be found in
http://feb.kuleuven.be/drc/AFI/research ... i-1377.pdf I hope it helps you. kind regards,Daniel
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 20th, 2015, 11:35 am
by list1
When I first looked at the formula I checked it for the call option payoff [$]f ( S_T )\,\, =\,\, max\,\{ S_T \,\,-\,\,K\, ,\,\,0\,\}[$]. The integration is quite simple and also it is quite an appropriate illustrative example.
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 20th, 2015, 4:22 pm
by Alan
Yes, another good one is [$]f(S_T) = \log \frac{S_T}{F_{0,T}}[$], where [$]F_{0,T}[$] is the forward price of the stock for sale at time T.When the stock is the SPX, the formula is the basis for the VIX (eqn (1)) whichis, in turn, an approximate fair strike (in vol pts) for the variance swap of the thread title.
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 27th, 2015, 2:01 pm
by yktsui
Sorry my bad my calculus background is no good, would you mind to tell me why below is incorrect by negative sign? I have never tried integration by part with indicator function. Thanks, [$]\int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)d(1_{S_T \geq K})[$]
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 27th, 2015, 2:12 pm
by yktsui
But I saw his proof for the Lemma seems skipped some step which I don't understood...He said: [$]u(x)[$][$]= u(a) + xu'(x) - au'(a) + \int_{x}^{a}Ku''(K)dK[$]By Considering the cases x < a and x > a[$]= u(a) + u'(a)(x-a) + \int_{inf I}^{a}u''(K)(K-x)_{+}dK + \int_{a}^{sup I}u''(K)(x-K)_{+}dK[$]I don't know how he did with the term [$]xu'(x)[$] as it disappeared in the next line...
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: December 27th, 2015, 2:49 pm
by Alan
QuoteOriginally posted by: yktsuiSorry my bad my calculus background is no good, would you mind to tell me why below is incorrect by negative sign? I have never tried integration by part with indicator function. Thanks, [$]\int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)\Delta(S_T-K)dK[$][$]= \int_{S_*}^{\infty} f(K)d(1_{S_T \geq K})[$]Fix a value for [$]S_T[$], say 2. Now plot [$]1_{S_T \geq K}[$] vs. [$]K[$]. See?
Taylor expansion in pricing Variance Swap
Posted: January 4th, 2016, 11:05 am
by LindersD
QuoteOriginally posted by: yktsuiBut I saw his proof for the Lemma seems skipped some step which I don't understood...He said: [$]u(x)[$][$]= u(a) + xu'(x) - au'(a) + \int_{x}^{a}Ku''(K)dK[$]By Considering the cases x < a and x > a[$]= u(a) + u'(a)(x-a) + \int_{inf I}^{a}u''(K)(K-x)_{+}dK + \int_{a}^{sup I}u''(K)(x-K)_{+}dK[$]I don't know how he did with the term [$]xu'(x)[$] as it disappeared in the next line...Proof: Assume now that [$]x<a.[$] Then we have that [$]\left( x-K\right) _{+}=0[$] if [$]K>a[$]and therefore [$]\int_{a}^{\sup I}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left(x-K\right) _{+}[$]d[$]K=0[$] Furthermore, we have that[$]\begin{eqnarray*}\int_{\inf I}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)_{+}\text{d}K & =&\int_{\inf I}^{x}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right)\underset{=0}{\underbrace{\left( K-x\right) _{+}}}\text{d}K+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right) _{+}\text{d}K\\ & =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)\text{d}K\\& =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-x\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \text{d}K\\& =&\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x).\end{eqnarray*}[$]We can then write[$]\begin{eqnarray*}& u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) \left( x-a\right)+\int_{\inf I}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left( K-x\right)_{+}\text{d}K+\int_{a}^{\sup I}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) \left(x-K\right) _{+}\text{d}K\\& =u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) \left( x-a\right)+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x).\\& =u\left( a\right) +u^{\prime}\left( a\right) x-u^{\prime}\left(a\right) a+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K-xu^{\prime}(a)+xu^{\prime}(x)\\& =u\left( a\right) +xu^{\prime}(x)-u^{\prime}\left( a\right) a+\int_{x}^{a}u^{\prime\prime}\left( K\right) K\text{d}K\\& =u(x).\end{eqnarray*}[$]A similar procedure works for [$]x\geq a[$]