According to Kim (1990, p.560) in "The Analytic Valuation of American Options".
I understand the first minimum condition where K sets the lower bound of the optimal exercise boundary at expiry, but the second one is unclear to me,
Update: $\delta$ = divdend rate, risk-free interest rate = $r$, optimal exercise boundary as a function of time $B(s)$ , exercise price $K$, in addition i found the following explanation,
An additional explanation was provided by Huang 1996
[1]: https://i.stack.imgur.com/1vjKt.png