Searched this forum and found some questions relating to mine....but not the exact same, hence posting this.
While I follow the derivation of the BS formula and the terms d1 and d2, I was trying to understand if there's an economic meaning of these terms. Most of the literature I've seen discusses Nd1 and Nd2 (Neilson etc.) but not d1 and d2 themselves.
As I starting point, I tried to understand the reason for subtracting the sigma term from the risk free rate in the dynamics of the underlying,
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dS/S = (r - 0.5*sigma^2)*dt + sigma*dW
In the d1 formula we end up adding the vol term back to the risk free rate:
- What is the economic/finance/stat/math interpretation of doing this?
- In addition, what is the economic intuition of adding a moneyness measure (the lnS/X) to the (r + 0.5sigma^2) term and then scaling it by the vol?
Thanks!