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Kanivan
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Joined: February 11th, 2005, 12:20 pm

using risk neutral valuation

August 3rd, 2005, 5:09 pm

if you know that the a security pays out an amount of max{ln(S/X),0} at T, how can we use risk neutral valuation to calculate the price of the security at time t?
 
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Kanivan
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Joined: February 11th, 2005, 12:20 pm

using risk neutral valuation

August 6th, 2005, 9:21 am

anyone?
 
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nyamazani
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Joined: February 22nd, 2005, 5:07 pm

using risk neutral valuation

August 8th, 2005, 8:33 am

What is S? what is X?But generally yes... if you can find the dynamics of S/X under the risk neutral measure then you can price the security. Depending on the dynamics it may have to be done numerically, but I would say that in this case a closed fom is likely.If for instance S/X is lognormal, (say exp(Y) = S/X) then you are evaluating E[Y; Y>0] where Y is normally distributedwhich is something like sigma*exp(-mu^2/2*sigma^2) +mu * P(Y>0)
 
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Kanivan
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Joined: February 11th, 2005, 12:20 pm

using risk neutral valuation

August 8th, 2005, 1:22 pm

S is the stock price and X is the strike price. shouldn't the expected value have something with N(d1) and N(d2) in it?
 
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nyamazani
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Joined: February 22nd, 2005, 5:07 pm

using risk neutral valuation

August 8th, 2005, 2:55 pm

Ok, so under the risk neutral measuredS_t = r S_t dt + sigma S_t dWt (if you are doing this in the normal BS framework)Solving this SDE gives usS_t= S_0exp((r-0.5sigma^2)t + sigmaW_t)so So Ln(S_t/X) is normally distributed with mean = ln(S_0/X) +(r-0.5*sigma^2)t and variance sigma^2 tThe value V in the RN world isV = exp(-rt)E[Phi(S)] where Phi is the payoff functionSo, in this case V = exp(-rt)E[Ln(S_t/X) ; Ln(S_t/X>0]let Z_t = ln(S_t/X)so V = exp(-rt)E[Z_t; Z_t>0]= exp(-rt) *1/sqrt(2*Pi)*S * int_{0}^{infty}z * exp(-(z-M)^2/2*S^2 dzwhere M is the mean and S is the stdev of Zdo the integral, and substitute back in, and that is your answer.