November 16th, 2005, 11:48 am
A quick answer, although I may be mistaken and would appreciate it if corrected:Since the regression that you're applying and the aggregation of the revenues are both linear processes, then it shouldn't matter. This, of course, implicitly assumes that the revenues of the different products are not correlated with each other over time, which is a requirement for the regression to be valid.
Last edited by
rcohen on November 15th, 2005, 11:00 pm, edited 1 time in total.