November 11th, 2002, 9:47 pm
Shrizvi12 and Dook,I asked a very profecient person in Arabic who agrees more with Dook's explanation (...and don't see any 'iconism' in this support ), adding that it's rather the word 'Ijbar' (whose verbal form is 'ajbara') which refers to the notion of 'forced'...As far as am concerned, I believe that since arabic is nothing but a semitic language (like aramean and hebrew) it's not excluded that both words have the same root or ethymology. Moon.