February 16th, 2006, 7:53 pm
Isn't the problem that the bespoke tranche (meaning different portfolio here -- it can also mean off-the-run strikes and maturities) might have a correlation behavior that is different from the index? For first order large correlation moves, then they should track OK. But what if the bespoke pool has a slight over-concentration in a couple of industry sectors, unlike the index, and these two sectors start ailing. Then the shape of the base skew should start diverging quite a bit. How can one hedge that, and simpler yet, even quantify how different the two pools are?