September 22nd, 2006, 4:50 pm
No, Bloomberg (and Gamanti) is wrong. The ED futures coverge to a price equal to 100 minus the LIBOR 3-Month rate whose value date is the 3rd Wednesday in the contract month. As ggcroco correctly points out, the maturity of the LIBOR rate to which the future converges is often NOT the 3rd Wednesday corresponding to the next quarterly contract. How you deal with this detail is up to you.You can ignore this detail and build you curve so that there are no gaps or overlaps. But then you have shifted this problem onto your pricers. For example, swaps with quarterly, non-imm accrual periods which happen to fix on the same day as the futures expiry with be misvalued because their accrual periods won't match all of the IMM dates.Alternatively, if you are doing bootstrapping to build your curve, you can interpolate/extrapolate to get the DF_settlementdate and then use the simple interest formula to fix your DF_enddate.In general, what you want out of your curve model is that you pricing model works correctly. Whatever your pricer is doing for a rate fixing on the same day as the future's expiry is what your curve model should do so that you get the right fixing rate into your pricer.