December 12th, 2007, 9:36 pm
I might be able to accept the independency of B(0,t) from B(t,T) but what about the next argument from the same derivationB(t,T) = 1/[1 + R(t,T) delT]where R(t,T) is the LIBOR rate from t to T. Following the derivation that I gave on previous mesgf(t,T) = 1/B(0,T) Ern[ exp^{-\int_{0}^{t}r(s)ds} R(t,T) B(t,T) ]and with same argument of risk neutral expectation are determined working backward in timef(t,T) = 1/B(0,T) Ern[ exp^{-\int_{0}^{t}r(s)ds} R(t,T) exp^{-\int_{t}^{T}r(s)ds}]for this to happen with your argument, you have to claim R(t,T) independent of exp^{-\int_{t}^{T}r(s)ds}] too. How do you prove that?